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30 Days Revision Module Day 1 - Polity I

1) Consider the following statements regarding the idea of ‘liberty’

  1. ‘Negative liberty’ deals with complete freedom where in no external authority can interfere.
  2. ‘Positive liberty’ deals with the relationship between the individual and the society by moving towards fewer constraints to the development of the individual.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

Negative liberty is only concerned with the inviolable area of non-interference and not with the conditions in society, outside this area, as such. It is a minimum area that is sacred and in which whatever the individual does, is not to be interfered with. The existence of the ‘minimum area of noninterference’ is the recognition that human nature and human dignity need an area where the person can act unobstructed by others. How big should this area be, or what should it contain, are matters of discussion, and will continue to be matters of debate since the bigger the area of non-interference the more the freedom.

In contrast, the arguments of positive liberty are concerned with explaining the idea of ‘freedom to’. They are in response to the answer ‘who governs me?’ to which the ideal answer is ‘I govern myself ’. Positive liberty discussions have a long tradition that can be traced to Rousseau, Hegel, Marx, Gandhi, Aurobindo, and also to those who draw their inspiration from these thinkers. It is concerned with looking at the conditions and nature of the relationship between the individual and society and of improving these conditions such that there are fewer constraints to the development of the individual personality. The individual is like a flower that blossoms when the soil is fertile, and the sun is gentle, and the water is adequate, and the care is regular.

 

SOURCE: NCERT

2) The acceptance of which of the following mandates by the Constitution can be termed as ‘necessary evil’?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b
  • Abolition of Untouchability is a right to ensure equality
  • Prohibition of Human Trafficking is a right against exploitation

3) According to the Indian Constitution, which of the following languages is/are considered as an official language of India?                   

  1. Hindi
  2. English
  3. All Scheduled languages

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a
  • Under Article 343, the Constitution of India designates the official language of the Government of India as Hindi written in the Devanagari script, as well as English.
  • There is no national language as declared by the Constitution of India.
  • Hindi and English are used for official purposes such as parliamentary proceedings, judiciary, communications between the Central Government and a State Government.

4) Which one of the following statements reflects the correct meaning of the term 'equality’?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b
  • The absence of restraints on the activities of individuals and Providing equal opportunities for the development of individuals are liberties.
  • Non-discrimination between people on the basis of economic factors is an Economic Justice

5) Consider the following statements regarding the provisions of ‘preventive detention.’               

  1. Any person can be arrested based on offences committed by him.
  2. Arrest of a person to prevent him from committing an offence in the near future.
  3. A person can be legally detained only for a maximum period of  3 months
  4. Only enemy aliens, but not friendly aliens, can be preventively detained.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?           

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b
  • Preventive detention means detention of a person without trial and connection by a court. Is not to punish a person for a past offence but to prevent him from committing an offence in the near future.  It is based on only on a precautionary measure and based on suspicion.
  • Both citizens as well as aliens candidate and preventively.  Article 22 grants protection to a person who are arrested under a preventive detention law.
    1. The detention of a person cannot exceed 3 months unless and advisory board report sufficient cause for extended attention. The board is to consist of its judges of a High Court.
    2. The grounds of detention should be communicated to thedetenu.  However, the fact translate to be against the public interest need not be disclosed.
    3. The detenu should be afforded an opportunity to make a representation against detention order.

6) According to the recent Supreme Court Judgment on 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011, which of the following constitutional provision(s) is/are still valid?

  1. Article 19(1)(c) in Part III
  2. Article 43 B  in Part IV
  3. Articles 243ZH to 243ZT in Part IX B

Choose the correct option

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

The Supreme Court struck down certain provisions of the Constitution (97th Amendment) Act, 2011.

  • The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act dealt with issues related to effective management of co-operative societies in the country.
  • It was passed by the Parliament in 2011 and had come into effect from 2012.
  • The change in the Constitution has amended Article 19(1)(c).
  • The Act gave protection to the cooperatives and inserted Article 43 B in Part IV and Part IX B, relating to them.
  • The Supreme Court in its recent majority verdict quashed Part IX B of the Constitution on cooperatives inserted by 97th constitutional amendment.
  • It held that Part IX B - Articles 243ZH to 243ZT, has “significantly and substantially impacted” State legislatures’ “exclusive legislative power” over its co-operative sector under Entry 32 of the State List.
  • It is valid only insofar as it concerns multi-State cooperative societies both within the various States and in the Union Territories.

7) How the concept of ‘Fraternity’ is expressed in Indian Constitution?

  1. Single citizenship                                                               
  2. Equal Protection of law
  3. States having no right to secede from the Union
  4. Duty of citizen to promote harmony and spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c
  • Fraternity means a sense of brotherhood.
  • The Constitution promote this feeling of fraternity by the system of single citizenship. 
  • The fundamental duties say that it shall be the duty of every citizen of India to promote harmony and the spirit of common Brotherhood in all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic, regional, or sectional diversities.
  • The Preamble declared that fraternity has to say 2 things- the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the nation.  The dignity of the individual signifies that the constitution not only ensures material betterment and maintain a democratic setup, but it also recognises that the personality of every individual is sacred.
  • The phrase unity and integrity of the nation embraces both the psychological and territorial dimensions of national integration.  Article 1 of the constitution describe India as a ‘Union of states’.  It means that states have no right to secede from the union.
  • Equality before law and Equal protection of law comes under the principle of Equality ( Article 14)

8) Article 395 deals with the commencement of the Constitution of India. It abolishes which of the following legislations

  1. Indian Independence Act, 1947,
  2. Government of India Act, 1919
  3. Government of India Act, 1935
  4. Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act, 1949

Select the correct code:

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b
  • Article 395 - Short title, commencement, Authoritative text in Hindi and Repeals
  • The Indian Independence Act, 1947, and the Government of India Act, 1935, together with all enactments amending or supplementing the latter Act, but not including the Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act, 1949, are hereby repealed.

9) Consider the following with respect SC Judgments

  1. Right to Privacy – K. S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) and Anr. vs Union Of India
  2. Hate Speech - Amish Devgan v Union of India
  3. Right to be Forgotten - Union of India v. Assn. For Democratic Reforms

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a
  • In Puttaswamy v. Union of India case, 2017, the Right to Privacy was declared a fundamental right by the Supreme Court.
  • In this case, SC also noted that Right to be forgotten was a part of the broader right to privacy.
  • It emerges from the right to privacy under Article 21 and partly from the right to dignity under Article 14.
  • SC in Amish Devgan v Union of India case observed that hate speech repudiates right to equality in a polity committed to Pluralism.
  • SC in Union of India v. Assn. For Democratic Reforms case 2002held that the freedom of 'speech and expression' comprises not only the right to express, publish and propagate information, its circulation but also to receive information.

10) The Fifth schedule of the Indian Constitution is not applicable to which of the following states?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : d
  • At present, 10 States namely Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan and Telangana have Fifth Schedule Areas.
  • The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas as well as of Scheduled Tribes residing in any State other than the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. Tribal habitations in the states of Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh and Jammu & Kashmir have not been brought under the Fifth or Sixth Schedule.

11)  Article 5 to 8 under Part II of the Constitution deals with the citizenship of which of the following provisions?

  1. Persons domiciled in India
  2. Persons migrated from Pakistan
  3. Persons of Indian origin residing outside India
  4. Persons with adequate knowledge of 8th schedule languages

Choose the correct option

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

•  Article 5 to 8 under Part II of the Constitution deals with the citizenship of 

  1. Persons domiciled in India
  2. Persons migrated from Pakistan
  3. Persons migrated to Pakistan but later returned
  4. Persons of Indian origin residing outside India

•  Article 11 states that Parliament shall have the power to make any provision with respect to acquisition and termination of citizenship.
•  Accordingly, citizenship by naturalization can be granted by the central government upon satisfying certain conditions, one of which is adequate knowledge of a language specified in the 8th schedule of the constitution.

12) Which of the following articles are termed as the 'Golden Triangle of Indian Constitution' 

  1. Article 14
  2. Article 19
  3. Article 21 
  4. Article 32

Select the correct code:

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a
  •  Article 14 (Right to Equality), 19 (Right to Freedom) and 21 (Right to Life and Liberty) are popularly known as the ‘golden triangle’ of the Indian Constitution. They are of prime importance and breathe vitality in the concept of the rule of law.
  • These rights are regarded as the basic principles for the smooth running of life for a citizen. The golden triangle provides full protection to individuals from any encroachment upon their rights.

13) Consider the following statements

  1. Right to information was not spelled out as a separate right under Article 19.
  2. Constitution explicitly prescribes that the violation of Article 17 and Article 23 are offenses punishable in accordance with the law.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c
  • Right to information is spelled out as a part of Article 21 by the Supreme Court.
  • Article 17 abolishes untouchability and the offenses are punishable in accordance with the law.
  • Article 23 prohibits traffic in human beings, begar (forced labour) and other similar forms of forced labour and offenses related to it are punishable in accordance with the law.

14) According to the cabinet mission plan, which one of the following was the method of electing the constituent Assembly?       

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : d
  • The representatives of three principal communities such as Muslims, Sikhs and General are elected by members of that community in the provincial legislative assembly by the method of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote.
  • The representatives of princely states were to be nominated by the heads of the Princely States.

15) To develop the scientific temper is

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

Article 51A (h) to develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform

16) Consider the following statements about Rights guaranteed under Article 32 and Article 226 of the constitution

  1. The availability of alternate remedy is no bar to relief under Article 32.
  2. The Supreme Court has ruled that where relief through High Court is available under Article 226, the aggrieved party should first move the high court.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

Right to Constitutional Remedies

  • Article 32 provides for the right to move the Supreme Court where a fundamental right is infringed is in itself a fundamental right,
  • The availability of alternate remedy is no bar to relief under Article 32.
  • However, the Supreme court has ruled that where relief through high court is available under Article 226, the aggrieved party should first move the high court.

17) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the formation of new states?

  1. The formation of new states in India needs a Constitutional Amendment under Article 368.
  2. The Bill for the creation of new states can be introduced only on the recommendation of the President.
  3. The views of the concerned state legislature are not binding on the President.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : d
  • The federation in India was not the result of any agreement between independent states and thus liberal power was given to the national government to reorganize the states unlike in the case of true federal country like United States of America.
  • Article 4 provides that with a simple majority and by ordinary legislative process, Parliament may form new states or alter the boundaries of the existing states without going through complex procedure of amending the constitution as prescribed by Article 368.
  • The conditions laid for making such law :
    1. No bill for the purpose can be introduced except on the recommendation of the President.
    2. The President, before giving his recommendations, refer the Bill to the Legislature of the State which is going to be affected by the changes proposed in the Bill, for expressing its views on the changes within the period specified by the President. However, the President is not bound by the views of the State Legislatures.

18) Consider the following statements

  1. Freedom of Trade, commerce, and intercourse throughout the territory of India.
  2. Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India.
  3. Freedom to move outside India.

Which of the above Rights are outside the Part-III of the Indian Constitution?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

Rights outside Part III are

  • No tax shall be levied or collected except by the authority of law
  • No person shall be deprived of his property save by the authority of law
  • Trade, commerce and intercourse throughout the territory of India shall be free
  • The elections to the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assembly shall be on the basis of Adult Suffrage.

19) Which of the following rights are also available against private individuals?

  1. Prohibition of discrimination on the basis of Religion
  2. Untouchability
  3. Forced Labour
  4. Prevention of Child Labour

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : d
  • There are certain rights included in Part III which are available not only against the State but also against private individuals.
  • Examples are
  1. Article 15 (2) - equality in regard to access to and use of places of public resort
  2. Article 17 - prohibition of untouchability
  3. Article 18(3) - (4) - prohibition of acceptance of foreign title
  4. Article 23 - prohibition of traffic in human beings
  5. Article 24 - Prohibition of employment of children in hazardous employment.

20) Which of the following Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) is/are originally present in the constitution?

  1. Opportunities for the healthy development of Children
  2. Early Childhood care and education for all Children until they complete the age of 6 years
  3. Secure a living wage, a decent standard of life and social & cultural opportunities for all workers.

Choose the correct option

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b
  • The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 added 4 DPSP articles, one of which is Article 39 - To secure opportunities for the healthy development of children.
  • The 86th amendment act, 2002 requires the state to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of 6 years.
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