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CA Revision Module - Test 15 (August 2023)

1. Which of the following countries are members of BRICS?

  1. Iran
  2. Egypt
  3. Ethiopia
  4. Argentina
  5. United Arab Emirates

Select the answer using the codes given below:

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

BRICS

15th BRICS Summit was held in Johannesburg in 2023.

  • Originally conceived as BRIC by Jim O'Neill, the grouping consisted of Brazil, Russia, India, and China.
  • Launched in – 2006, as BRIC with Brazil, Russia, India and China as founding members.
  • BRIC turned into BRICS in 2010, with the entry of South Africa.
  • Saudi Arabia, Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, Argentina and the UAE were invited to join BRICS.
  • New members - Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, and the UAE officially joined the BRICS grouping
  • Argentina declined to join as full member and Saudi Arabia is still considering the BRICS membership.
  • Chair – Chaired by member countries in rotational basis.
  • South Africa is the chair for 2023.
  • First summit – It was held in Yekaterinburg in 2009.
  • In Fortaleza declaration, New Development Bank was created in 2015 worth 100 bn dollars.
  • BRICS Plus – It is a cooperation mechanism launched in Xiamen summit 2017 to enlarge BRICS beyond 5 members.
  • The Cape of Good Hope – It is the joint statement of BRICS, underscores the use of local currencies in international trade and financial transactions between BRICS and its trade partners.
  • BRICS pay – It is a decentralised multi-currency digital international payments system that was launched in 2018.
  • Significance
    • Almost 46% of the world's population
    • 36% of global GDP
    • 25% of world trade, measured in terms of exports.

BRICS Expansion

2. The Global Environment Facility (GEF) serves as a financial mechanism to which of the following conventions?

  1. Minamata Convention on Mercury
  2. Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
  3. UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)
  4. Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)
  5. United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : d

Global Environment Facility (GEF)

Recently, the 7th assembly of Global Environment Facility (GEF) was conducted in Vancouver, Canada.

  • It is a multilateral family of funds dedicated to confronting biodiversity loss, climate change, and pollution, and supporting land and ocean health
  • It distributes more than 1 billion dollar a year on average to address inter-related environmental challenges.
  • Conceived by – France in 1989.
  • Established in – 1992.
  • Partnership – It is a unique partnership of 18 agencies — including United Nations agencies, multilateral development banks, national entities and international NGOs.
  • It includes 186 member governments as well as civil society, Indigenous Peoples, women, and youth.
  • GEF TrusteeWorld Bank
  • Funding – It is provided by participating donor countries and made available to developing countries and countries with economies in transition to meet the objectives of international environmental conventions and agreements

Family of Funds

Coverage - 5 conventions

  • Global Environment Facility Trust Fund
  • Global Biodiversity Framework Fund (GBFF)
  • Least Developed Countries Fund (LDCF)
  • Special Climate Change Fund (SCCF)
  • Nagoya Protocol Implementation Fund (NPIF)
  • Capacity-building Initiative for Transparency Trust Fund (CBIT).
  • Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
  • United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
  • Stockholm Convention
  • UN Convention to Combat Desertification
  • Minamata Convention on Mercury
  • It also provides the secretarial services to adaptation fund which was established under the Kyoto Protocol in 2001.
  • 7th GEF Assembly – It ratified the Global Biodiversity Framework Fund, fund for protecting endangered species and their ecosystems globally.
  • It also stressed on youth leaders learning exchange, indigenous and local knowledge, GEF partnership forum, Intergenerational fireside chat for wildfires and women’s leadership in environmental action.
  • Inclusive GEF Assembly Challenge Program – A new funding initiative providing up to USD 100,000 to each of 23 winners.
  • Net Zero Nature-positive World – To support countries raising ambition in climate and nature.

3. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Finance Bill-I can be introduced only in Lok Sabha and only after prior recommendations of the President of India.

Statement-II: Finance Bill-I deals with general legal issues & provisions related to Article 110 of Constitution of India.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

Money Bill vs Financial Bill

The Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Bill which was earlier reported as a financial bill, is now categorised as a normal bill by the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs.

  • Finance bill – Any Bill that relates to revenue or expenditure.
  • Money bill – A specific type of financial Bill, deals only with matters specified in Article 110.
  • It deals with taxes, regulation of the government’s borrowing of money, and expenditure or receipt of money from the Consolidated Fund of India.
  • Procedure for passage of money bill – Article 109 delineates the procedure and confers an overriding authority on the Lok Sabha.
  • Role of Speaker – Final authority to decide whether a bill is money bill or not.
  • His decision cannot be challenged in any court of the country.

Features

Money Bill

Financial Bill

Constitution

Article 110

Article 117

Introduced by

Only by a minister

Either by a minister or by a private member

Role of President

Requires prior recommendation

Exemption- Amendments related to reduction or abolition of any tax

Finance bill I - prior recommendation

Finance bill II – Prior recommendation

Introduced in

Only in Lok Sabha

Financial bill I – only in Lok Sabha

Financial bill II – Either of the houses

Subject matter

As mentioned in Article 110

Finance Bill 1 - General legal issues & provisions related to Article 110.

Finance Bill 2 - Provisions on the costs of India's Integrated Fund but is not included in Article 110.

Powers of Rajya Sabha

It cannot amend or reject which may be accepted or rejected by the Lok Sabha

It can amend it

Detaining time for Rajya Sabha

A maximum period of 14 days only.

A maximum period of 6 months.

Speaker’s endorsement

Requires

Doesn’t require

Joint sitting

No provision

yes

President’s assent power

Either assent or withhold but cannot return the bill

Assent, return or withhold the bill

4. Consider the following pairs:

Committee                                     Role

  1. Rohini commission             –          Subcategorization of OBCs
  2. Amitabh Kant committee   –          Manipur Violence
  3. Gita Mittal Committee        –          Real Estate Projects

How many of the above pairs are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

Committees in news

The report of Rohini commission which was set up to examine the sub-categorisation of OBCs was submitted to the President.

  • Rohini Commission – Constituted in 2017 under Article 340 of the Constitution.
  • Functions – To identify the respective castes or communities or sub-castes in the Central List of OBCs and classifying them into their respective sub-categories.
  • Amitabh Kant Committee – It was constituted in 2023, by Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
  • Functions – To examine stalled real estate projects and to recommend ways to complete the stalled projects.
  • Real estate is a state subject under 7th schedule, hence it falls under the purview of respective state governments.
  • Justice Gita Mittal Committee – It is constituted with 3 members.
  • Functions – To oversee various aspects beyond the investigation, such as relief, rehabilitation, and compensation for those affected by the Manipur violence.

5. Consider the following statements:

  1. As per Indian Constitution, the state governments, as the owners of minerals can grant mineral concessions for exploration and mining.
  2. 100% FDI is allowed in mining sector.
  3. Revenue generated from auctions of mines will go to respective state governments.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2023

President gave her assent to the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2023.

  • In India – Entry 23 of List II (State list) deals with regulation of mines with subject to the provision of List I.
  • Entry 54 of List I (Union List) deals with regulation of mines under the control of Union as declared by Parliament by law to be expedient in the public interest.
  •  As per Indian Constitution, the state governments, as the owners of minerals can grant mineral concessions for exploration and mining but subject to restriction of union if any.
  • Amendment Act – Removal of 6 minerals from the list of 12 atomic minerals limited to exploration by State agencies (i.e., lithium, beryllium, niobium, titanium, tantalum and zirconium).
  • This opens up opportunities for private sector involvement in their exploration and mining.
  • Empowering the government to exclusively auction mineral concessions for critical minerals, including rare earth elements, graphite, cobalt, lithium, nickel, phosphate, potash and tin.
  • Revenue generated from these auctions will go to the concerned State Governments, accelerating the pace of auctions and production for vital industries like space, electronics and energy transition.
  • Introduction of Exploration Licences (EL) to attract foreign direct investment (FDI) and engage junior mining companies in exploring deep-seated and critical minerals like gold, platinum, rare earth elements, etc.
  • While 100% FDI is allowed in mining, there has been limited investment in these sectors.

6. Consider the following statements with respect to Katchatheevu Island

  1. It is of volcanic origin.
  2. It is an uninhabited off-shore island in the Palk Strait.
  3. 1976 Agreement marked the international maritime boundary of India and Sri Lanka.

How many of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : d

Katchatheevu Island Dispute

Prime Minister Narendra Modi mentioned the island of Katchatheevu during No Confidence debate in the Parliament.

  • Geography – An uninhabited off-shore island in the Palk Strait, formed due to volcanic eruptions in the 14th century.
  • It is no more than 1.6 km in length and slightly over 300 m wide at its broadest point.
  • It lies northeast of Rameswaram (India) and southwest of Jaffna (Sri Lanka).

Katchatheevu Island Dispute

 

  • Maritime Boundary Agreement – Fishermen of both countries have been fishing in each other's waters without conflict for a very long time.
  • 1974 agreement – To fix the maritime boundary in the Palk Strait.
  • Each country shall have sovereignty and exclusive jurisdiction and control over the waters, the islands, the continental shelf and the subsoil, falling on its own side of the aforesaid boundary.
  • Only navigational rights of the vessels of both Sri Lanka and India over each other’s waters have been preserved.
  • 1976 Agreement – Each Party shall respect rights of navigation through its territorial sea and exclusive economic zone in accordance with its laws and regulations and the rules of international law.
  • It marked the international maritime boundary of India and Sri Lanka without consulting the Tamil Nadu State Assembly.

7. Consider the following statements:

  1. In nuclear fusion reaction, alpha, beta and gamma radiations were emitted.
  2. Atomic bomb is based on the principle of nuclear fission reaction whereas hydrogen bomb is based on nuclear fusion reaction.
  3. In nuclear fission reaction, atleast one thermal neutron from outside is compulsory.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

Nuclear Fusion Vs Nuclear Fission

Christopher Nolan’s film “Oppenheimer” has ignited conversation around nuclear weapons.

  • The Manhattan Project – US with the support of the UK and Canada, during World War II to produce the 1st nuclear weapons.
  • 2 types of nuclear bombs – It is based on the process of nuclear reaction.
  • Atomic bomb – It is based on the principle of nuclear fission, an uncontrolled chain reaction in which the number of neutrons and the number of fission reactions multiply in a geometrical progression.
  • Nuclear fission was 1st discovered by German Scientist Otto Hahn and F.Strassman in a Uranium nucleus.
  • This releases a huge amount of energy in a very small-time interval and leads to an explosion.
    • Example – Hiroshima and Nagasaki bombing in 1945.
  • J. Robert Oppenheimer is called as the father of atom bomb.
  • Homi Jehangir Bhabha was called as the father of India’s nuclear program.
  • Hydrogen bomb – It is based on the principle of nuclear fusion.
  • It is always designed to have an inbuilt atom bomb which creates the high temperature and pressure required for fusion when it explodes.
  • Then, fusion takes place in the hydrogen core and leads to the release of a very large amount of energy in an uncontrolled manner.

Features

Nuclear Fusion

Nuclear Fission

About

Lighter nuclei will join together to produce heavy nucleus

Heavy nucleus is divided into 2 fragments along with few neutrons

Temperature
requirement

Very high temperature (107 kelvin)

Room temperature

Conditions required

High density and high temperature

Critical mass of the substances and high-speed neutrons

Need of neutrons

No need of external neutrons

To start fission atleast one thermal neutron from outside is compulsory

Energy

Energy released per unit mass is high, nearly 7 times more than fission

Energy released per unit mass is less

Reaction

No control on fusion reaction

Can be controlled

Example- Nuclear reactor

Emissions

Alpha rays, positrons, and neutrinos

Alpha, beta and gamma radiations

Example

Hydrogen bomb

Atomic bomb

8. Consider the following statements with respect to 3D printing

  1. It works based on the subtractive manufacturing process.
  2. Fracking is one of the methods of 3D printing.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : d

3D Printing

Recently India inaugurated its first 3D-printed post office in Bengaluru.

  • The 3D printing process was invented in the 1980s and was originally known as ‘rapid prototyping’.
  • Traditional manufacturing uses a subtractive manufacturing process, where a block of material is gradually removed until a part is formed.
  • On the other hand, 3D printing uses an additive manufacturing process.
  • Additive manufacturing processes build objects by adding material layer by layer, while subtractive manufacturing removes material to create parts.
  • 3 process – data processing, material processing and robotic printing.
  • It is a process that uses computer-created design to make 3-dimensional objects layer by layer.
  • A software like Slicer is used to break the 3D model into many types of 2D layers which is then printed.
  • The layers of a material like plastic, composites or bio-materials are built up layer by layer to construct objects that range in shape, size, rigidity and colour.
  • Benefits
    • Production speed and flexibility
    • More design freedom
    • Low-cost customization
    • Less dependent on supply chains
    • Reduced storage costs
    • 3D PrintingMore environmentally friendly
  • Hydraulic fracturing, commonly known as fracking, is the process of injecting water, sand, and/or chemicals into a well to break up underground bedrock to free up oil or gas reserves.

9. Consider the following with respect to International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)

  1. It was created in response to the 1973-74 oil crisis when an oil embargo by major producers pushed prices to historic levels.
  2. It is the only organization within the UN system with expertise in nuclear technologies.
  3. India is a founding member of IAEA.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)

The nuclear ‘chain reaction’ and neighbourhood challenges led India to acquire nuclear weapons.

  • IAEA – It is world's central intergovernmental forum for scientific and technical co-operation in the nuclear field.
  • It is widely known as the world’s “Atoms for Peace and Development”.
  • Established in – 1957, as an autonomous organisation under UN.
  • Headquarters – Vienna International Centre.
  • Members – 178 member states, India is a founding member.
  • Significance – It is the only organization within the UN system with expertise in nuclear technologies.
  • Its unique specialist laboratories help transfer knowledge and expertise to Member States in areas such as human health, food, water, industry and the environment.
  • It also serves as the global platform for strengthening nuclear security.
  • It works for the safe, secure and peaceful uses of nuclear science and technology, contributing to international peace and security and the United Nations' Sustainable Development Goals.
  • In 2024 – It along with the government of Belgium organised the 1st ever Nuclear Energy Summit highlighting the role of nuclear energy in addressing climate change.
  • The International Energy Agency (IEA) was created in response to the 1973-1974 oil crisis when an oil embargo by major producers pushed prices to historic levels.

10. Consider the following statements:

  1. Article 2 relates to the formation of or changes in the existing states of the Union of India.
  2. Article 3 of Indian Constitution grants Parliament, the power to admit new states into the Union of India and the power to establish new states.
  3. Amendments to Article 2 and Article 3 are not considered as amendments under Article 368 and thus can be passed by a simple majority.

How many of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

The resolution moved by Kerala CM was passed unanimously to change the name of a state to Keralam.

  • Origin of the name – The earliest epigraphic record mentioning Kerala was Emperor Asoka’s Rock Edict II of 257 BC.
  • It refers to the local ruler as Keralaputra, and also son of Chera referring to the Chera dynasty.
  • Origin of the state – It became a separate state of India on November 1, 1956.
  • In Malayalam, the state was referred to as Keralam, while in English it was Kerala.
  • The resolution to change the name requires the approval from the Union Ministry of Home Affairs.
  • Article 2 - It relates to the admission or establishment of new states that are not part of the Union of India.
  • It empowers the Parliament to ‘admit into the Union of India, or establish, new states on such terms and conditions as it thinks fit’.
  • Thus, Article 2 grants two powers to the Parliament
    • the power to admit into the Union of India new states; and
    • the power to establish new states.
  • Article 3 - It relates to the formation of or changes in the existing states of the Union of India.
  • It deals with the internal re-adjustment of the territories of the constituent states of the Union of India.
  • Powers of Parliament under Article 3 – It can form a completely new State by separating the territory from any State by uniting two or more states or parts of states or by uniting any territory to a part of any state.
    • It can increase or decrease the area of any State.
    • It can change/alter the name of any State.
    • It can also make changes to the boundaries of a State.
  • Article 4 - It declares that amendments made under Article 2 and Articles 3 are not to be considered as amendments of the Constitution under Article 368.
  • This means that such laws can be passed by a simple majority and by the ordinary legislative process.

11. Which of the following is incorrect with respect to cfDNA?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

cfDNA

  • cfDNA – Cell-free DNA, refers to small DNA fragments found outside the cell in the bodily fluids like blood, spinal fluid, urine, etc.
  • Origin – These fragments are derived from various sources, including the breakdown of cells, the release of DNA from damaged or dying cells, and the shedding of DNA by normal cells.
    • cfDNAApoptosis – It is a programmed cell death.
    • Necrosis – It is the death of body tissue.
    • NETosis – A program for formation of neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs), which consist of modified chromatin decorated with bactericidal proteins from granules and cytoplasm.
  • Applications of cfDNA – Its presence in bodily fluids is an indication of various processes that include physical injury, inflammation, and cancer.
  • It is used in Non-invasive prenatal test (NIPT), a screening test that can be performed during pregnancy to assess the risk of chromosomal abnormalities in the foetus. 
  • Circulating tumor DNA (ctDNA) – It refers to a small subset of the cfDNA and consists of small DNA fragments released into the bloodstream by cancer cells.
  • ctDNA can be detected in the blood of individuals with cancer and can provide information about the characteristics of the cancer.

12. Consider the following statements with respect to Convention on Cluster Munition (CCM).

  1. It bans the use, production, stockpiling, and transfer of cluster bombs.
  2. The member countries are legally bound to provide support and rehabilitation to the cluster bomb victims in their jurisdiction.
  3. India is a signatory member to CCM.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

Convention on Cluster Munition (CCM)

United States has decided to send cluster munitions to Ukraine, as a part of a new military aid package to bolster Ukraine’s war efforts against Russia.

  • It is an international treaty which is based on the Oslo process, a series of meetings that concluded in a treaty.
  • Adopted in – 2008; Entered into force – 2010. 
  • Aim – To prohibit all use, production, transfer and stockpiling of cluster munitions.
  • Parties – To date, 112 States are parties to the Convention.
  • Non-signatory countries – U.S., Russia, Ukraine, China, Israel, and India.
  • Features – It obligates countries to destroy existing stockpile of cluster munitions in their possession.
  • The countries are legally bound to provide support and rehabilitation to the cluster bomb victims in their jurisdiction.
  • Responsibilities entrusted to the Secretary-General of the UN.
  • Convention on Cluster Munition (CCM)Collection and dissemination of transparency reports by and to the States Parties
  • Facilitation of clarification of compliance
  • Convening Meetings of States Parties and Review Conferences
  • A cluster munition – It is a weapon consisting of a container or a dispenser from which many submunitions or bomblets are scattered over wide areas.
  • Dud rateMany bomblets are unreliable and fail to explode instantly and remain dormant for years which is also known as the dud rate.

13. Consider the following pairs:

CAPF                                                 Mandate to guard

  1. Assam Rifles                            –       Indo-Nepal and Indo-Bhutan borders
  2. Border Security Force            –       Indo-Myanmar border
  3. Indo Tibetan Border Police   –       Indo-China border
  4. Sashastra Seema Bal              –       Indo-Pakistan and Indo-Bangladesh borders

How many of the pair(s) given above is/are incorrectly matched?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

Central Armed Police Forces

Recently, Manipur Police have registered an FIR accusing the Assam Rifles (AR) of preventing police from doing their duty.

  • The armed Police Organisation, referred to as Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs).
  • Administrative control by – Ministry of Home Affairs
  • Operational control by – Ministry of Defence

CAPF forces

  • Assam Rifles (AR) – It is the oldest Central Para Military Force in India.Called as Sentinels of North East. Primary role- To guard Indo-Myanmar border.
  • Border Security Force (BSF) – India’s 1st line of defence. It is the world’s largest border guarding force. It is the only force of the nation with a distinctly defined war-time as well as peace-time role.Mandate- To guard the Indo-Pakistan and Indo-Bangladesh border.
  • Indo Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) – Deployed along Indo-Tibet border
  • Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB) – Mandated to guard the Indo-Nepal and Indo-Bhutan borders.
  • Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) – Security to premises, staff, property and establishments. It is the only CAPF with a dedicated firefighting wing and has the largest percentage of women in its force.
  • Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) – Deployed in aid of civil matters like Crowd & Riot control, Counter Insurgency, deal with Left Wing Extremism.
  • National Security Guard (NSG) – Counter anti-hijack operations, rescue operations.
  • Features – Among all, the AR, BSF, ITBF and SSB are the 4 Border Guarding Forces.

14. Consider the following pairs

Places in News                       Reasons

  1. Maui Island               –          Forest fire
  2. Novorossiysk Port   –          Oil leak
  3. Kuril Islands             –          China-Japanese conflict
  4. Sulina Channel         –          Ukraine’s trade route

How many of the above pair(s) is/are correctly matched?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b
  • Maui Island - Recently there has been a deadly wildfire in Hawaii’s Maui Island due to strong winds from Hurricane Dora.
  • A wildfire is an uncontrolled fire in an area of combustible vegetation that occurs in the countryside or rural area.
  • Wildfires can burn in vegetation located both in and above the soil.
  • Novorossiysk Port – A Russian naval ship got damaged in a Ukrainian naval drone attack in the Novorossiysk Port in the Black Sea.
  • The Novorossiysk commercial seaport is one of Russia’s largest by volume and among the biggest in Europe.
  • The port is one of the country’s main naval hubs for the Black Sea.
  • Kuril Islands – The Ukraine war has given some hope to Japanese that the Kuril Islands can be wrestled out of Russia's control.
  • It is a conflicted territory between Japan and Russia.
  • The Kuril Islands are strategically located islands stretching between the north of Japan's Hokkaido Island and the southern tip of Russia's Kamchatka Peninsula.
  • Japan, Russia and South Korea calls them in 3 different names.
  • Japan – Northern territories
  • Russia – the Kuril Islands
  • South KoreaDokdo islands
  • Sulina Channel – It is the new alternative trade route for Ukraine after Russia’s drone strikes on ports and grain storage facilities along the Danube River in Ukraine.
  • It is situated in Romania (a NATO member).
  • It is a riverine ‘expressway’ crucial for transport of goods from Ukraine (one of the world's top grain exporters) to the Black Sea.
  • Danube River is the Europe’s second longest river which has been historically crucial for the movement of freight.
  • Its 3 channels are Chilia, Sulina and St George.

15. Consider the following statements:

  1. It is an autonomous body, working under the ambit of Ministry of Culture.
  2. Its motto is ‘Conserving the past for the future’.
  3. It has emerged as the most popular and effective among all the heritage conservation initiatives in the country.

The above-mentioned features correspond to which one of the following?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

National Mission for Manuscripts

India has a large collection of ancient manuscripts, a part of the country’s cultural heritage, but over the years many have been lost or lie in museums abroad.

  • It is an autonomous body.
  • Established in – 2003, by the Ministry of Tourism and Culture
  • Aim – To unearth and preserve the vast manuscript wealth of India.
  • It has the mandate of identifying, documenting, conserving and making accessible the manuscript heritage of India.
  • Motto – Conserving the past for the future.
  • Significance – It has emerged as a movement, undoubtedly the most popular and effective among all the heritage conservation initiatives in the country.
  • India possesses an estimate of ten million manuscripts, probably the largest collection in the world.
  • A manuscript is a handwritten composition on paper, bark, cloth, metal, palm leaf or any other material dating back at least 75 years that has significant scientific, historical or aesthetic value.
  • Lithographs and printed volumes are not manuscripts.

16. Which of the following best describes the term “Mrityu Bahini”?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : d

Mrityu Bahini

On the eve of 77th Independence Day, President Murmu pays tribute to Matangini Hazra, Kanaklata Barua.

  • Mrityu Bahini – It was a death/suicide squad prepared to sacrifice their lives while attempting to hoist the national flag atop police stations.
  • Kanaklata Barua – She is one the youngest martyrs, who died at the age of 17 in the Quit India Movement.
  • She joined the Mrityu Bahini and was made the leader of the women cadres of the Bahini.
  • She unfurled the Tricolour at Gohpur police station in 1942 and when police did not let them move forward, an altercation led to firing, killing Barua.
  • In 2020, the Coast Guard named a Fast Patrol Vessel (FPV) after her, the ICGS Kanaklata Barua.
  • Matangini Hazra – A revolutionary leader in India's struggle for independence who earned the name “Gandhi Buri” (the old Gandhian woman).
  • She led a march during the Quit India movement of 1942, to take over the Tamluk police station from British authorities and fell to the british bullets at the age of 73.
  • She was the 1st woman revolutionary to have her statue erected in the Kolkata Maidan in 1977.

17. Consider the following sites:

  1. Sivagalai
  2. Adichanallur
  3. Kodumanal
  4. Porpanaikottai
  5. Tirunavaya

How many of the above sites belongs to Sangam age?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

Sangam age sites

A portion of a circular brick structure has been unearthed by archaeologists at Porpanaikottai.

  • Sangam Age – It is a period that is dated from 300 BCE to 300 CE.
  • Previous excavation of Sangam sites
  • Keeladi
  • Sivagalai
  • Adichanallur
  • Kodumanal
  • Porpanaikottai – It is a sangam age site, situated at Pudukottai, Tamilnadu.
  • Light Detection and Ranging (LIDAR), a remote sensing method, indicated that a fort had existed there.
  • Findings – Grave goods, conch bangles, fragments of red and black pots, of pots engraved with Tamili, iron fragments, glass beads and weapons made of bones.
  • A hero stone mentioning the name of one Kanangkumaran who hailed from Adhavanur was found at the site.
  • Tirunavaya – Pipeline work leads to vast megalithic site in Kerala.
  • Hat stones – They are popularly called Thoppikkallu in Malayalam, are hemispherical laterite stones used as lid on burial urns during the megalithic period.
  • Ashes were found in the pots recovered from the chamber as well as from under the hat stones.

18. Consider the following statements with respect to Interpol Global Academy Network (IGAN)

  1. It aims to support Interpol in leading a global approach to law enforcement training.
  2. Enforcement Directorate (ED) of India has recently joined it as a member.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

Interpol Global Academy Network (IGAN)

Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) Academy joins the Interpol Global Academy Network.

  • Launched in – 2019
  • Aim – To support Interpol in leading a global approach to Law Enforcement Training.
  • It is a network of trusted law enforcement education institutions, both regional and national in scope.
  • Members support the creation and delivery of select digital and face-to-face training courses, covering INTERPOL’s tools and services, crime areas, and other law enforcement topics.
  • CBI Academy – CBI Academy has become the 10th Member of the Interpol Global Academy Network.
  • It is situated in district Ghaziabad, Uttar Pradesh.
  • It is the focal point of training activities within the organization.
  • It is responsible for identification and conducting suitable training programmes, regulation of nominations of trainees and preparation of the Annual Training Calendar.
  • It conducts on-line training programmes for personnel from CBI and other central and local law enforcement agencies.

19. Consider the following statements with respect to PM Vishwakarma Scheme

  1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme that aims to provide end-to-end support to artisans and craftspeople who work with their hands and tools.
  2. Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship is the nodal ministry of this scheme.
  3. The artisans and crafts persons will be provided with collateral free enterprise development loans of up to Rs. 5 lakh.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : d

PM Vishwakarma Yojana

Union Cabinet has recently approved a new Central Sector Scheme ‘PM Vishwakarma’.

  • Launched in – 2023
  • Aim – To provide end-to-end support to artisans and craftspeople who work with their hands and tools.
  • It is a Central Sector Scheme, fully funded by the Government of India with an initial outlay of Rs 13,000 crore.
  • Duration – 5 years (FY 2023-24 to FY 2027-28).
  • Nodal ministryMinistry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
  • Implemented by
  • Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
  • Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
  • Ministry of Finance
  • Significance – It aims at improving the quality, as well as the reach of products and services of Vishwakarmas and to ensure that they are integrated with the domestic and global value chains.
  • 18 traditional trades will be covered in the first instance under PM Vishwakarma.
  • Benefits – Vishwakarmas will be provided recognition through PM Vishwakarma certificate and ID card.
  • Collateral free 'Enterprise Development Loans' of upto Rs. 3 lakh in two tranches of Rs. 1 lakh and Rs. 2 lakh, at a concessional rate of interest fixed at 5%, with Government of India subvention to the extent of 8%.
  • It will further provide skill upgradation, toolkit incentive, incentive for digital transactions and marketing support.
  • Participants will get a stipend of Rs.500 per day while undergoing training.
  • Beneficiaries will also receive up to Rs. 15,000 to buy modern tools.

20. Consider the following statements:

  1. This scheme is aimed at saving the soil and promote sustainable, balanced use of fertilizers.
  2. It has no separate budget, but a 50% subsidy savings will be provided to States/UTs.
  3. It has been initiated by the Union Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers.

Which one of the following initiatives of Government of India corresponds to the above given features?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

PM PRANAM Scheme

  • PM-PRANAMPM Programme for Restoration, Awareness Generation, Nourishment, and Amelioration of Mother Earth.
  • Aim – To incentivize States that actively contribute towards balanced use of chemical fertilizers and to encourage regions to take concrete steps towards sustainable agriculture & environmental preservation.
  • Budget – It has no separate budget, but a 50% subsidy savings will be provided to States/UTs.
  • 70% of the grant can be used for asset creation related to technological adoption of alternate fertilisers and alternate fertiliser production units.
  • 30% grant money can be used for incentivising farmers, panchayats, farmer producer organisations, self-help groups, etc.
  • It has been initiated by the Union Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers.
  • iFMS (Integrated fertilisers Management System) data available in the Fertiliser Ministry dashboard will be used for this purpose.
  • Significance – It will help the government reduce subsidy bills and fiscal deficits.
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