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CA Revision Module - Test 32 - Full Test - I (From January 2023 - March 2024)

1. Consider the following statements with respect to the Traditional Medicine Global Summit, 2023

  1. It is the first-ever Global Summit on Traditional Medicine which was held at New Delhi, India.
  2. It was jointly hosted by the World Health Organization (WHO) and the Government of India.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

Traditional Medicine Global Summit, 2023

  • It is the first WHO Traditional Medicine Global Summit held in Gandhinagar, Gujarat, India.
  • It was held alongside the G20 health ministerial meeting.
  • Aim - To mobilize political commitment and evidence-based action on traditional medicine
  • Host - Co-hosted by the WHO and the Government of India, which holds the presidency of the G20 in 2023.
  • The stakeholders will share best practices and game-changing evidence, data and innovation on the contribution of traditional medicine to health and sustainable development.
  • Global Centre for Traditional Medicine (GCTM) – Headquarter is located in Jamnagar, Gujarat.

2. W12+ Blueprint, a platform that hosts city profiles and case studies of programs, technologies, policies that addresses common water security challenges, is an initiative of?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

W12+ Blueprint

The W12+ Blueprint committed knowledge sharing for water security challenges at Un Water Conference 2023.

  • About - An informational database for solutions to urban water challenges.
  • Launched by – 2 NGOs (SOS and ECOCIV) in partnership with UNESCO IHP.
  • Aim - To create a tool that provides insight on how to address common urban water challenges through easy to read case studies.
  • It is dynamic, interactive knowledge-sharing database of case studies and best-practice water solutions at city-level.
  • 2 cities from India are listed in this Blueprint
    • Bengaluru – Community Leadership for Water Source Rejuvenation.
    • Chennai – Rainwater Harvesting Policy for Enhanced Supply.

3. Which of the following best describes the term ‘SNAP-10A’?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

SNAP-10A

  • It is the world’s first operational nuclear reactor in space.
  • Launched in – 1965 by the U.S.
  • It was built as a result of the System for Nuclear Auxiliary Power (SNAP) programme or SNAPSHOT for Space Nuclear Auxiliary Power Shot.
  • Objective – To develop compact, lightweight, reliable atomic devices that could then be employed in space, sea, and land.
  • Reactor – Enriched uranium fuel with zirconium hydride as a moderator, and liquid Na-K alloy as the coolant.
  • A thermoelectric converter was used to directly convert heat from the reactor into electricity.
  • Russia has sent quite a few of them, including one that crashed and scattered radioactive debris over Canada in 1978.
  • NASA's TEMPO – The Tropospheric Emissions: Monitoring of Pollution.
  • An instrument to measure pollution and air quality across greater North America on an hourly basis during the daytime.
  • Voyager 2 and Voyager 1 – They are the only spacecraft that have ever operated outside the heliosphere, which is considered to be the border of our solar system.

4. Which of the following islands are part of the Pacific Island Countries (PICs)?

  1. Fiji
  2. Solomon Islands
  3. Papua New Guinea
  4. Comoros
  5. Barbados

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

Pacific Island Countries (PICs)

  • PICs is a cluster of 14 island nations dotting the South-western Pacific. They are
  • The Cook Islands, Fiji, Kiribati, the Marshall Islands, Micronesia, Nauru, Niue, Samoa, the Solomon Islands, Palau, Papua New Guinea, Tonga, Tuvalu and Vanuatu.
  • Comoros and Barbados are not the part of the Pacific Island Countries (PICs).
  • All these islands are located at the crossroads of strategically important maritime trade corridors.
  • Of the 14 PICs, Fiji and Papua New Guinea (PNG) are the ones with the biggest populations and the most heft.

Pacific Island Countries

5. Which of the following best describes the term ‘Alpenglow phenomenon’?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

Alpenglow

Alpenglow phenomenon was recently seen near the Hindu Kush mountain range.

  • Alpenglow is a reddish hue seen near mountain summits during sunrise or sunset.
  • It refers to the indirect sunlight reflected or diffracted by the atmosphere before sunrise or after sunset, giving a horizontal reddish glow near the horizon opposite the Sun.
  • It occurs when direct sunlight around sunrise or sunset is reflected off airborne precipitation, ice crystals or particulates in the lower atmosphere, as the sunlight has no direct path to reach a mountain.
  • After sunset, if there are no mountains the aerosols in the eastern sky can be lit up by the remaining red light scattered above the edge of Earth's shadow.
  • It produces a pinkish band on the opposite side of the Sun's direction, named the Belt of Venus.

6. Consider the following.

  1. Sahyadri Mountains
  2. Konkan Coast
  3. Deccan Plateau
  4. Eastern Ghats
  5. Coromandel Coast

Which of the following are integrated part of Maratha military landscape?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : d

Maratha Military Landscapes

India nominates 12 forts of Marathas as ‘Maratha Military Landscapes’ for inclusion in the UNESCO World Heritage list for 2024-25.

  • Maratha Military Landscapes – A fortification and military system envisioned by Maratha rulers and developed between 17th and 19th centuries.
  • Integrated physiographySahyadri Mountains, Konkan Coast, Deccan Plateau and the Eastern Ghats.
  • They vary in hierarchies, scales and typological features.
  • Maratha Military Landscapes in World Heritage List – Only 12 forts are nominated as Maratha landscapes (11 are in Maharashtra and 1 is from Tamil Nadu).
  • Earlier, it was included in the Tentative List of World Heritage sites in 2021.
  • It is the 6th cultural property nominated from Maharashtra.
  • Out of 6 criteria for cultural category in WHS, the landscape has 3 criteria.

Twelve Forts

  • Hill forts - Salher fort, Shivneri fort, Lohgad, Raigad, Rajgad and Gingee.
  • Hill-forest fort – Pratapgad.
  • Hill-plateau fort – Panhala.
  • Coastal fort – Vijaydurg.
  • Island forts – Khanderi fort, Suvarnadurg and Sindhudurg.

UNESCO World Heritage Sites

  • At present in India there are 42 World Heritage sites, out of which 34 are cultural sites, 7 are natural sites whereas one is mixed site.
  • In Maharashtra there are 6 World Heritage Sites (5 cultural and 1 natural). They are:
    • Ajanta Caves (1983)
    • Ellora Caves (1983)
    • Elephanta Caves (1987)
    • Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Terminus (formerly Victoria Terminus) (2004)
    • Victorian Gothic and Art Deco Ensembles of Mumbai (2018) and
    • Western Ghats of Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Kerala is serial property in natural category (2012).

7. Global Tree Assessment (GTA), sometimes seen in the news, is an initiative of?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : d

Global Tree Assessment (GTA)

  • Launched in - 2015
  • Coordinated by - Botanic Gardens Conservation International (BGCI) and the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Species Survival Commission Global Tree Specialist Group (IUCN-SSC GTSG).
  • It is a comprehensive list of species and critical health indicator of global world bio-diversity.
  • The 6 major threats categorised by the Global Tree Assessment are:
    1. Crop agriculture expansion
    2. Tree cover decline as a proxy for overexploitation in all vegetation types
    3. Urbanisation
    4. Deforestation as a proxy for land-use change threats in forested areas, changes in burnt area descaled as fire and fire suppression
    5. Climate change measures in terms of changes in annual variation in figures of temperatures and precipitation
    6. Seasonality and vapour pressure deficit (VPD) and VPD seasonality

8. Consider the following statements with respect to Model Code of Conduct (MCC)

  1. The code comes into force immediately when the election dates are declared and revoked when the elections are completed. 
  2. It derives its statutory backing from the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961.
  3. MCC was first introduced in the state assembly elections in Kerala.

How many of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

Model Code of Conduct (MCC)

  • About - A code that contains some general precepts for model behaviour during elections conducted by Election Commission (EC).
  • The code comes into force immediately when the election dates are declared and remains till the results are announced
  • It has 8 chapters, with one dedicated to what the party in power can and cannot do once elections are announced by the EC.
  • MCC evolved as part of the ECI’s drive to ensure free and fair elections, and was the result of a consensus among major political parties.
  • It has no statutory backing.
  • Simply put, this means anybody breaching the MCC can’t be proceeded against under any clause of the Code. Everything is voluntary.
  • A version of the MCC was first introduced in the state assembly elections in Kerala in 1960.
  • The code’s purpose, emphasising it only prohibits new projects, programmes, financial grants or promises that could influence the electorate in favour of the ruling party.
  • The MCC restrictions are solely applicable to states undergoing elections.
  • It forbids use of official machinery and personnel for the political gains of the party in power.

9. Global Innovation Index (GII), 2023 was launched by?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : d

Global Innovation Index (GII)

  • It is a leading reference for measuring an economy’s innovation ecosystem performance.
  • Published by - The World Intellectual Property Organization.
  • For the 13th year in a row, Switzerland is the most innovative economy in 2023 followed by Sweden, the United States, the United Kingdom and Singapore.
  • In 2023, Sweden has overtaken the United States and has climbed to second position.
  • Singapore has entered the top five and has taken the leading position among South East Asia, East Asia and Oceania (SEAO) region economies.

India

  • India retains 40th rank out of 132 economies in the Global Innovation Index 2023 rankings.
  • India has topped the lower-middle income group category in the index.
  • India has been on a rising trajectory, over the past several years in the GII.
  • The rank of India in the index was 81 in 2015, which improved to 40 in 2023.
  • The consistent improvement in the GII ranking is owing to:
    • Immense knowledge capital.
    • Vibrant start-up ecosystem.
    • Work done by the public and private research organizations.

10. Consider the following pairs.

Places in news

            Regions

Almora Fault

North-eastern India

 Julian Felipe Reef

South China Sea

Kopili Fault  

Nepal

How many of the pair(s) given above are incorrect?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

Almora Fault

  • Almora FaultLocated in Western Nepal.
  • Nepal and the adjoining northern part of India, are highly seismically active areas prone to earthquakes due to collision tectonics, where the Indian plate subducts beneath the Eurasian Plate.
  • It separates the inner lesser Himalayas in the north from outer lesser Himalayas in the south.

Almora Fault

Kopili Fault

  • kopili faultLocationNorth Eastern Region of India
  • Range – Extends from the western part of Manipur to the tri-junction of Bhutan, Arunachal Pradesh, and Assam.
  • It is one of the active fault that has experienced large earthquakes and falls into the Highest Seismic Hazard Zone V.

Julian Felipe Reef

  • Location - Spratly Islands of the South China Sea.
  • It lies in the Exclusive Economic Zone of Philippines.
  • It's also known as Whitsun Reef, Whitson Reef, and Whitsum Reef.
  • Julian felipe Reef

11. Consider the following statements with respect to Red Sand Boa

  1. It is a venomous species inhabiting the arid regions of the Indian subcontinent.
  2. They are ovoviviparous and nocturnal and spends the majority of its time under the ground.
  3. It is protected under the Schedule 1 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

How many of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

Red Sand Boa (Eryx johnii)

  • It is commonly called as the Indian Sand Boa.
  • It is a non-venomous species found throughout the dry parts of the Indian subcontinent.
  • The sand boa is a small burrowing snake.
  • The nine species inhabit arid lands in Africa, southeastern Europe, the Middle East and India.
  • Red Sand Boa
  • It is a primarily reddish-brown and thick-set snake that grows to an average length of 75 cm.
  • Unlike most snakes, the tail is almost as thick as the body and gives the reptile the appearance of being double-headed.
  • They are the largest of the sand boas in the world.
  • The red sand boa is now acknowledged as one of the most traded reptile species in the illegal trade market, due to its demand in the pet trade, as well as for use in black magic.
  • They are ovoviviparous and nocturnal and spends the majority of its time under the ground.
  • Protection status
    • Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 – Schedule IV
    • CITES – Appendix II
    • IUCN Status – Near Threatened

12. Consider the following statements with respect to Household Consumption Expenditure Survey, 2022-23

  1. It was conducted by the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO).
  2. According to the report, Consumption expenditure growth is faster in rural India than urban India.
  3. India's per capita monthly consumption expenditure increases by more than 50% when compared to 2011-12 level.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

Household Consumption Expenditure Survey

Ministry of Statistics & Program Implementation has released Household Consumption Expenditure Survey 2022-23.

  • Conducted byNational Sample Survey Office (NSSO) under Ministry of Statistics and Program Implementation.
  • NSSO merged with the Central Statistical Office (CSO) to form the National Statistical Office (NSO) since 2019.
  • Publication – It is supposed to be held every 5 years.
  • 2017-18 survey – Not released citing data quality issues.
  • Aim – To generate estimates of household Monthly Per Capita Consumption Expenditure (MPCE) and its distribution for
    • Rural and urban sectors
    • States and Union Territories, and
    • Different socio-economic groups.
  • Information collected in HCES is useful for understanding
    • Consumption and expenditure pattern,
    • Standard of living and
    • Well-being of the households.
    • To update Consumer Price Inflation (Retail inflation) basket.

Household Consumption Expenditure Survey 2023

  • Covered whole of the Indian Union except a few inaccessible villages in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
  •  3 broad categories of consumption basket – Food items, consumables & services items and durable goods.
  • Findings – Consumption expenditure has increased by over 2.5 times from 2011-12 levels in current prices, and the growth is faster in rural India than urban India.
  • MPCE – A measure of the average spending of a person in a month on various goods and services.
  •  It is based on Modified Mixed Reference Period (MMRP).
  • India's per capita monthly consumption expenditure was 33-40% higher in 2022-23 than 2011-12.
  • The average monthly per capita consumption expenditure (MPCE) of both urban and rural households doubled in the 11-year period with both spending lesser on food items.
  • Of this 46% of the expenditure was on food items in rural households and 39% in urban homes in 2022-23.

Key aspect

High/low

State/ UT

Both rural and urban areas

High

Sikkim

Low

Chhattisgarh

Rural- urban difference in average MPCE

High in States

Meghalaya (83%)

Chhattisgarh (82%)

High in UT

Chandigarh

Low in UT

Ladakh- In rural areas

Lakshadweep- In urban areas

13. Consider the following statements regarding Nazool Lands

  1. It is owned by the respective state governments but most often not directly administered as state property.
  2. The government generally uses Nazool land for public purposes like building schools, hospitals, etc.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

Nazool Land

Violence erupted in Uttarakhand after the demolition drive at the site of a mosque and madrasa, allegedly on Nazool land.

  • Emergence – During the British rule where after defeating the opponents, the British would often take their land away from them.
  • After Independence – British vacating these lands and became vacant.
  • Owned by – The respective state governments but most often not directly administered as state property.
  • The state generally allots such land to any entity on lease for a fixed period.
  • The government generally uses Nazool land for public purposes like building schools, hospitals, etc.
  • The Nazool Lands (Transfer) Rules, 1956 is the law mostly used for Nazool land adjudication.

14. ‘Horizon 2047’, sometimes seen in the news recently, refers to?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

Horizon 2047

The French President was the chief guest at India’s Republic Day 2024, making it his third visit to India, after his 2018 state visit and G-20 2023 summit hosted by India.

  • Diplomatic relation – In 1947, both countries established diplomatic relation which upgraded to strategic partnership in 1998.
  • Horizon 2047: Charting the future of India-France Strategic Partnership
  • Signed in – 2023, to mark the 25th anniversary of the Indo-French partnership.
  • Both countries agree to adopt a roadmap to set the course for the bilateral relationship up to 2047.
  • Three pillars - ‘Security, planet and people’ guides the bilateral ties for the next 25 years.
  • New Horizons – It is an interplanetary space probe launched as a part of NASA's New Frontiers program.

15. Consider the following statements with respect to UN Human Rights Council (UNHRC)

  1. It is one of the specialized agencies of the United Nations.
  2. Its resolutions are not legally binding on its members.
  3. It has no criminal enforcement or sanctioning powers.

How many of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

UN Human Rights Council (UNHRC)        

Russia has failed to regain a seat on the U.N. Human Rights Council after a majority of countries in the UN General Assembly voted against it.

  • It is an intergovernmental body within the United Nations system.
  • It is a subsidiary of UN General Assembly (UNGA).
  • It was established in 2006, by replacing the Commission on Human Rights.
  • Membership – 47 States who are elected from 193 members of UN General Assembly by absolute majority through secret ballot system.
  • In order to ensure equitable geographical distribution, its seats are distributed among regional groups of States that is Africa (13), Asia-Pacific (13), Eastern European (6), Latin American and Caribbean (8), and Western European and others (7).
  • India - India is a member.
  • Term3 years with a maximum of 2 consecutive terms.
  • Meeting – It meets 3 times a year at the United Nations Office at Geneva (UNOG).
  • Functions
    • Universal Periodic Review – This review by UNHRC assesses the human rights situations in all UN Member States.
    • Suspension – The General Assembly, via a 2/3rd majority, can suspend the rights and privileges of any Council member that it decides has persistently committed gross and systematic violations of human rights during its term of membership.
  • Leading entity – Office of the High Commissioner for Human Rights (OHCHR) is the leading UN entity on human rights.
  • Not binding - Its resolutions are not legally binding but carry moral authority.
  • Powers – It has no criminal enforcement or sanctioning powers.
  • The council can undertake investigations that help to influence a country’s behaviour.
  • Russia lost the election to UNHRC against Albania and Bulgaria in the Eastern European Region.
  • Russia’s membership was suspended in the wake of its full-scale invasion of Ukraine.

16. Consider the following statements with respect to Rat-Hole Mining

  1. Rat-hole mining is a method of extracting coal from narrow, horizontal coal beds.
  2. This practice of mining is prevalent in Meghalaya.
  3. The practice of rat-hole mining is banned in India.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

Rat-Hole Mining

  • Rat-hole mining is a method of extracting coal from narrow, horizontal coal beds which is prevalent in Meghalaya.
  • The term “rat hole” refers to the narrow pits dug into the ground, typically just large enough for one person to descend and extract coal.
  • Once the pits are dug, miners descend using ropes or bamboo ladders to reach the coal seams.
  • The coal is then manually extracted using primitive tools such as pickaxes, shovels, and baskets.
  • The 2 types of rat-hole mining includes:
    • Side-cutting – In this method the narrow tunnels are dug on the hill slopes and workers go inside until they find the coal seam.
    • Box-cutting – A rectangular opening is made, varying from 10 to 100 sqm and through that a vertical pit is dug, 100 to 400 feet deep.
  • Rat hole mining poses significant safety and environmental hazards.
  • The mines are typically unregulated, lacking safety measures such as proper ventilation, structural support, or safety gear for the workers.
  • The mining process can cause land degradation, deforestation, and water pollution.
  • They often persist due to economic factors and the absence of viable alternative livelihoods for the local population.
  • Ban - The National Green Tribunal (NGT) banned the practice of rat-hole mining in 2014, and retained the ban in 2015.

17. Windsor Framework, sometimes seen in the news recently, is a deal between?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : d

Windsor Framework

UK government reached a landmark deal on post-Brexit trade rules that will govern Northern Ireland.

  • Great Britain – England + Scotland + Wales
  • United Kingdom – Great Britain + Northern Ireland
  • Windsor framework - Agreement between UK and European Union.
  • It will replace the Northern Ireland Protocol.
  • The framework has two crucial aspects:
    • Introduction of Green and red lane system – For goods that will stay in Northern Ireland and those that will go to the EU respectively.
    • Stormont Brake – Allows Northern Ireland lawmakers and London to veto any EU regulation they believe affects the region adversely.
  • The two lane system– British goods meant for Northern Ireland will use the green lane at the ports, and will be allowed to pass with minimal paperwork and checks.
  • Physical checks will be conducted if the goods are deemed suspicious, in place of the routine checks now.
  • Goods destined for Ireland or the rest of the EU will have to take the red lane, with the attendant customs and other checks.
  • The Stormont Brake – It means the democratically elected Northern Ireland Assembly can oppose new EU goods rules that would have significant and lasting effects on everyday lives in Northern Ireland.
  • For this, they will need the support of 30 members from at least 2 parties and the British government can then veto the law.

Windsor Framework

18. Consider the following statements with respect to Sigur Landscape

  1. It is a part of the World Network of Biosphere Reserves of UNESCO.
  2. Sigur plateau is the last southernmost viable breeding population for the White-rumped vulture in India.
  3. The Sigur corridor protects the contiguity of elephant habitats between the Eastern and Western Ghats.

How many of the statements given above are incorrect?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : d

Sigur Landscape

  • Sigur Plateau is located in the Nilgiri Hills of Tamil Nadu.
  • Sigur landscape is a “critical node of central connection” between elephant populations in the Western Ghats.
  • It connects the Western and the Eastern Ghats.
  • Sigur Landscape
  • It has the Nilgiri Hills on its south-western side and the Moyar River Valley on its north-eastern side.
  • It is bounded to the northwest by the Bandipur National Park, to the east by the Sathyamangalam Wildlife Sanctuary and to the west by the Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary.
  • It sustains elephant populations and their genetic diversity.
  • It is a part of the World Network of Biosphere Reserves of UNESCO.
  • The elephants cross the plateau in search of food and water.
  • Sigur plateau, Nilgiris is the last southernmost viable breeding population for the White-rumped vulture in India.
  • The Sigur plateau is home to the Irular community tribals.

19. Consider the following passage:

They spend most of their lives in the open ocean and only return to land to breed and raise young. They must be able to withstand salt water, wind and waves. The examples of this type include Frigate birds, Fulmars, Shearwaters and Tropicbirds.

The above passage best describes which of the following?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

Pelagic Birds

  • Pelagic means relating to or living in the open ocean, especially the upper layers far from the shore.
  • Pelagic birds spend most of their lives in the Open Ocean and only return to land to breed and raise young.
  • The decline in fish populations has a direct effect on the density of pelagic birds.
  • Examples – Sooty Shearwater, Brown Skua, Brown Booby, Streaked Shearwater and Masked Booby, Frigate birds, Fulmars, Shearwaters and Tropicbirds.

20. Consider the following statements with respect to the Indus Water Treaty (IWT):

  1. It was signed between India and Pakistan, brokered by the World Bank.
  2. It gave the waters of the rivers Indus, Ravi and Chenab to Pakistan and waters of rivers Jhelum, Beas and Sutlej to India.
  3. It does not permit the construction of dams for any purpose by either parties on these rivers.

How many of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

 Indus Water Treaty (IWT)

  • Indus water treaty (IWT)IWT – It was signed in 1960 under the World Bank's supervision, between India and Pakistan.
  • Aim – To regulate the use and distribution of the Indus River system between India and Pakistan.
  • India maintains absolute control over the waters of the eastern rivers, the Ravi, Sutlej, and Beas.
  • Pakistan’s jurisdiction – It has unrestricted use of the western rivers, the Indus, Jhelum, and Chenab.
  • Respective countries can construct dams on the rivers which are under their control.
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